A 55 year old business executive is being discharged from
the hospital after a brief admission for cellulitis. His only PMH is HTN and obesity. During his stay, his casual serum glucoses were
found to be in the high 200s mg/dL and a hemoglobin A1C resulted at 11.6%. What should be done at the inpatient to
outpatient transition to address his diabetes?
HughesMedicine - Pharmacotherapy Pearls from the Internal Medicine Clinical Pharmacist
Monday, January 16, 2017
Recommended for you
-
Let’s start with a patient case. A patient is being treated with methylprednisolone 20 mg IV q6 hours for some inflammatory process and...
-
Since it's the time of year again when Lyme disease is a concern for patients in many parts of the United States, I thought it would b...
-
The American Geriatrics Society recently published their Alternative Treatments to Selected Medications in reference to the most recent upd...
-
Thiamine is a water-soluble vitamin that is an important coenzyme for various metabolic processes in the body. These include the regulat...
-
Ticagrelor is an antiplatelet medication that is commonly used for a number of cardiovascular conditions. Its mechanism is similar to th...
-
Testing urine for the presence of drugs has a variety of uses including assessing poisoning or overdose, pre-employment testing, substanc...
-
Heparin and low molecular weight heparins (LMWH) are some of the many medications that have been identified to cause hyperkalemia. When l...
-
Thrombocytopenia is a notable adverse effect of linezolid. Some of the evidence behind the onset, duration, and the extent of platelet de...
-
A 65 year old male is being treated for an infection on his forearm that developed purulent drainage within the last few days. He denies ...
-
Let's start with a patient case. A 70 year old male patient is admitted to the hospital for a diabetic foot infection. He has a past...
